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25 Feb 2010 21:52:56 IST
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Ok this is a question related to the binomial theorem as used in finding bernoulli trial probabilities... Suppose u are given the mean (expectance) and variance of an experiment (call them x and y) which is a bernoulli trial experiment. Can u find a binomial distribution B (a,n) which will give such a mean and variance??I'm not sure if it has got a unique or infintie or finite solution set... but we REQUIRE TWO variables ('a' and 'n') and are GIVEN TWO equations (mean=x) and (variance=b) ?
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25 Feb 2010 21:53:39 IST
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Can anyone help please?
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27 Feb 2010 21:24:00 IST
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I think its unique......................Mean of a binomial distribution= x = np (n & p with usual meanings)...........And variance = y = np(1-p).......................If we solve the two equations we will obviously get a unique solution..........
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Common sense is not very common. --- Voltaire
Man is born free, but is everywhere in chains.-------Jean Jacques Rosseau
The rule of SATAN is inevitable~~~~~~transmigrator
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27 Feb 2010 21:30:38 IST
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To see the elegant proofs of the two equations mentioned above, wiki 'BINOMIAL DISTRIBUTION'...............
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Common sense is not very common. --- Voltaire
Man is born free, but is everywhere in chains.-------Jean Jacques Rosseau
The rule of SATAN is inevitable~~~~~~transmigrator
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27 Feb 2010 22:35:29 IST
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thnx! nevr hit upon those two.. devilishly simple... gotta read up more on this :-/ (dnt u thnk they cud hv jst mentioned this in th ncert texts?)
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27 Feb 2010 22:42:33 IST
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just to be sure... this works fr ALL bernoulli trial experiments n generally not for anything else right?
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1 Mar 2010 11:48:54 IST
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yes.................these expressions can be derived only for bernoulli's trials...............
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Man is born free, but is everywhere in chains.-------Jean Jacques Rosseau
The rule of SATAN is inevitable~~~~~~transmigrator
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